hmac112 hmac112
  • 15-04-2015
  • Mathematics
contestada

what fraction of 1 pint is 1 cup

Respuesta :

W0lf93
W0lf93 W0lf93
  • 13-04-2017
The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint.
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

Will doubling the dimensions of a cone double its volume?
What is an explicit equation?
which of these is equivalent to 1?
What was 1960s fashion like? Describe.
Why doesn't John-the-Fletcher take Robin to Sir Peter de Lindsay? A. John-the-Fletcher
With a suspension bridge, like the one in the photograph above, the weight is distributed __________________.
What aspect of modern life would seem familiar to a Londoner from the Victorian age? A. the lack of loyalty to a ruling monarch B. the ability to travel great
Which words are the conjunctions in this sentence? Both you and she must take responsibility. A. she B. Both C. must D. and
What is the difference between Una Unas Un Unes la le las los
Type a title for the plot line. Then write the numbers and draw the Xs